Question Paper_JUNE-2024_Forensic Science_UGC NET/JRF

UGC NET JRF JUNE-2024

FORENSIC SCIENCE

 

51. Arrange in increasing order, which was invented earlier:

A.      Polymerase chain reaction

B.      Extraction of DNA from cells

C.      Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism

D.     Southern Blotting

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A, B, C, D

2.      B, D, C, A

3.      B, C, A, D

4.      C, A, D, B

Answer -  2. B, D, C, A

Extraction of DNA from cells: This process involves isolating DNA from cells, which dates back to the mid-20th century when techniques for breaking open cells and separating DNA from other cellular components were developed.

Southern blotting: Developed by Edwin Southern in 1975, this technique allows for the detection of specific DNA sequences in a sample. It involves gel electrophoresis of DNA fragments, transfer to a membrane, and detection using hybridization with labeled probes.

RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism): RFLP analysis emerged in the 1984 as a method to analyze genetic variation by detecting variations in DNA fragment lengths generated by restriction enzyme digestion. It was used extensively in genetic mapping and forensic DNA analysis before more modern techniques like PCR-based methods became prevalent.

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR): PCR was invented in 1985 by Kary Mullis. It revolutionized molecular biology by allowing rapid and efficient amplification of specific DNA sequences. PCR is widely used today in research, diagnostics, and various fields of molecular biology.

52. Arrange these chronologically in increasing order of their eruption

A.      First molar

B.      First bicuspid

C.      Canines

D.     Third molar

E.      Central incisors

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A, E, B, C, D

2.      B, C, A, E, D

3.      A, C, B, D, E

4.      E, A, B, D, C

ANSWER - 1. A, E, B, C, D

The eruption sequence of human teeth typically follows a pattern from the front to the back of the mouth, and generally, the sequence is as follows:

1.    First molars – 6-7yrs

2.    Central incisors (central front teeth) – 7-8yrs

3.    Lateral incisors (next to the central incisors) – 8-9 yrs

4.    First Premolar (First bicuspids) – 10-12 yrs

5.    Second premolar (Second bicuspid) – 10-12 yrs

6.    Canines (also known as cuspids or eye teeth) – 11-12 yrs

7.    Second molars (twelve-year molars) – 12-13yrs

8.    Third molars (wisdom teeth) – 12-21 yrs

 

53. What is the correct process or sequence of method of preparation of cast of 3D foot print on sand’ surface?

A.      Application of wooden or metal frame around print

B.      Photography of foot print

C.      Pouring of solution of plaster of paris

D.     Visual examination of foot print

E.      Spraying of hardener solution

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      D, B, A, E, C

2.      B, D, C, A, E

3.      B, A, C, D, E

4.      D, A, B, C, E

ANSWER- 2. B, D, A, C, E

b. Photography of foot print: Initially, it's important to photograph the foot print for documentation and analysis.

d. Visual examination of foot print: Before proceeding with casting, a visual examination of the footprint is conducted to assess its clarity and depth.

a. Application of wooden or metal frame around print: A frame is then applied around the footprint to create a boundary for pouring the casting material.

c. Pouring of solution of plaster of paris: Plaster of paris or a similar casting material is carefully poured into the frame to fill the footprint and create the cast.

e. Spraying of hardener solution: After the plaster has partially set, a hardener solution may be sprayed onto the cast to strengthen it.

54. Arrange the following symptoms in sequence of their occurrence caused by “Nerium Odorum”.

A.      Coma and death

B.      Tetanic spasms

C.      Dilated pupils

D.     Muscular twitchings

E.      Drowsiness

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      D, C, E, B, A

2.      C, D, B, E, A

3.      A, B, C, D, E

4.      D, E, C, B, A

ANSWER- 1. D, C, E, B, A

The sequence of symptoms caused by Nerium odorum:

1. Muscular twitchings (d)
2. Dilated pupils (c)
3. Drowsiness (e)
4. Tetanic spasms (b)
5. Coma and death (a)

55. NCRB and erstwhile NICFS were established respectively in which year?

A.      1970

B.      1986

C.      1972

D.     1961

E.      1980

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      B and d only

2.      C and A only

3.      A and E only

4.      B and C only

ANSWER – 4. B and C only

56. Which of the under mentioned factors are unique feature of micellar electrokinetic electrophoresis?

A.      Electro-osmotic flow

B.      Pressure induced flow

C.      Separation of charged as well as neutral analyte

D.     Capillary is filled with stationary phase

E.      Do not require high voltage

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A, B only

2.      C, D only

3.      A, C only

4.      C, E only

ANSWER - 3. A and C only

a. Electro-osmotic flow: Electro-osmotic flow occurs due to the movement of buffer ions along the capillary wall under the influence of an electric field.

b. Pressure induced flow: MEKC typically operates under an electric field-induced flow rather than pressure-induced flow. Pressure-induced flow is more characteristic of techniques like high-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC) rather than capillary electrophoresis.

c. Separation of charged as well as neutral analyte: MEKC is capable of separating both charged and neutral analytes, which is one of its distinctive features. The presence of micelles in the separation buffer allows for the separation of neutral compounds based on their hydrophobic interactions with the micellar phase.

d. Capillary is filled with stationary phase: MEKC does not involve a stationary phase filling the capillary; instead, the separation is based on the interaction of analytes with the micellar phase in the buffer.

e. Do not require high voltage: MEKC does require the application of high voltage (typically several thousand volts) to induce the electrophoretic separation of analytes.

57. In fluorescence based immunological assay, which of the under mentioned fluorescent labels are used?

A.      Rhodamines

B.      Phycobiliproteins

C.      Peroxidase

D.     Malic dehydrogenase

E.      Hydroxyapatite

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A, B only

2.      B, C only

3.      C, D only

4.      B, E only

ANSWER - 1. A and B only

In fluorescence-based immunological assays, fluorescent labels are used to detect the presence of specific analytes. Let's evaluate the options provided:

a. Rhodamines: Rhodamines are a class of fluorescent dyes commonly used as labels in fluorescence-based assays. They emit light in the red-orange spectrum upon excitation with an appropriate wavelength.

b. Phycobiliproteins: Phycobiliproteins are fluorescent proteins found in certain algae and cyanobacteria. They are used as fluorescent labels because of their strong fluorescence and resistance to photobleaching.

c. Peroxidases: Peroxidases are enzymes used in colorimetric assays (not fluorescence) where they catalyze a reaction producing a colored product. They are not used as fluorescent labels.

d. Malic dehydrogenase: Malic dehydrogenase is an enzyme involved in cellular metabolism and is not used as a fluorescent label in immunological assays.

e. Hydroxyapatite: Hydroxyapatite is a mineral form of calcium apatite and is not used as a fluorescent label in immunological assays.

58. Among the various marks, that are produced on a cartridge case by a weapon, the extractor and ejector marks are characteristic to which class of weapon

A.      Semi-automatic

B.      Single action

C.      Revolver

D.     Air gun

E.      Fully automatic

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A , B only

2.      A, E only

3.      C, E only

4.      A, C only

ANSWER - 2. A and E only

Extractor and ejector marks on cartridge cases are characteristic features produced by the action of firearms during the firing cycle. Here's the breakdown of the options provided:

·        Extractor mark: This mark is typically caused by the extractor claw gripping the rim of the cartridge case to extract it from the chamber after firing.

·        Ejector mark: This mark is produced when the ejector mechanism forcefully ejects the spent cartridge case out of the firearm.

Based on these marks, they are most characteristic of firearms that are semi-automatic or fully automatic. Here's why:

·        Semi-automatic firearms: These firearms automatically extract and eject spent cartridge cases using extractor and ejector mechanisms. Examples include pistols and rifles like the AR-15.

·        Fully automatic firearms: These firearms, such as machine guns, also have extractor and ejector mechanisms that function similarly to semi-automatic firearms.

59. Which of the followings are commonly used as secondary explosives

A.      RDX

B.      TNT

C.      Lead azide

D.     Mercury fulminate

E.      Lead styphnate

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A, B only

2.      B, C only

3.      C, D only

4.      D, E only

ANSWER - 1. A and B only

Secondary explosives are explosives that are relatively insensitive to shock, friction, and heat compared to primary explosives. They are typically used as main charges in military and industrial applications. Let's evaluate the options provided:

a. RDX (Research Department Explosive): RDX is a powerful high explosive that is commonly used as a secondary explosive in military applications due to its stability and high energy output.

b. TNT (Trinitrotoluene): TNT is another high explosive that is often used as a secondary explosive in military and industrial applications. It is stable and has a moderate energy output.

c. Lead azide: Lead azide is a primary explosive, not a secondary explosive. It is very sensitive to shock and is used primarily as a detonator or initiator.

d. Mercury fulminate: Mercury fulminate is a primary explosive that is extremely sensitive to shock and friction. It is used as a detonator or initiator.

e. Lead styphnate: Lead styphnate is a primary explosive, similar to lead azide, and is used primarily as a detonator or initiator.

60. A polar molecule is a molecule which shows a permanent electric dipole moment. Such type of molecule shows which kind of polarization?

1.      Distortion polarization

2.      Electronic polarizability

3.      Orientation polarization

4.      Non-interactive polarization

ANSWER - 3. Orientation polarizability

Orientation polarizability refers to the ability of polar molecules to align their permanent dipoles in an external electric field. When an external electric field is applied, polar molecules tend to align themselves such that their positive and negative charges are oriented towards the opposite ends of the field.

Distortion polarization refers to the polarization induced by the displacement of electron clouds in a molecule in response to an external electric field.

Electronic polarizability refers to the ability of electrons in atoms or molecules to move in response to an external electric field, leading to induced dipoles.

61. The forensic science laboratory of Uttar Pradesh was established in the year

1.      1959

2.      1963

3.      1969

4.      1972

ANSWER – 3. 1969

62. In capillary electrophoresis, the sheath flow detector is used to detect

1.      DNA fragments

2.      Drugs of abuse

3.      Doping agents

4.      Metallic poisons

ANSWER – 4. Metallic poisons

Sheath flow detectors- this type of detector is particularly sensitive to metal ions and is commonly used for the detection of metallic poisons or heavy metals in samples analyzed by capillary electrophoresis.

63. Alleles are pairs of contracting genes, one derived from each parent. If two genes comprising an allelomorphic pair are identical, the situation is called:

1.      Major depression

2.      Bipolar disorder

3.      Homozygous

4.      Heterozygous

ANSWER – 3. Homozygous

Homozygous refers to a genetic condition where an individual has two identical alleles for a particular gene locus, one inherited from each parent. For example, if both alleles at a specific gene locus are for blue eyes(bb), the individual is homozygous for that trait.

64. In a document, brownish-yellow stains which arise from microbiological attack stimulated by the presence of traces of iron compound is known by the term:

1.      Fretting

2.      Foxing

3.      Leaching

4.      Creasing

ANSWER – 2. Foxing

Foxing refers to the reddish-brown spots or stains that can appear on paper or other materials due to fungal or microbial growth. These stains are often exacerbated in the presence of iron compounds which may act as nutrients for the microorganisms causing the discoloration.

Fretting typically refers to wear or damage caused by friction or rubbing.

Leaching refers to the process where substances are removed from solid by dissolving them in liquid.

Creasing refers to the cat of forming a fold or line on a surface, such as paper, by folding or pressing.

65. Cooling of dead body is also known as:

1.      Algor mortis

2.      Postmortem caloricity

3.      Rigor mortis

4.      Livor mortis

ANSWER – 1. Algor Mortis

66. Who among the following author has written a book discussing about forge finger prints?

1.      F. Brewester

2.      E.R Henry

3.      H.R. Hardless

4.      C.K. Parikh

ANSWER – 2. E.R. Henry

67. In atomic spectra, the total angular momentum in light atoms is obtained on the basis of which of the followings:

1.      Russell-Saunders coupling

2.      jj coupling

3.      Aufbau principle

4.      Huckel method

ANSWER – 1. Russel-Saunders Coupling

Also known as LS coupling, this method is used to determine the angular momentum of an atom by combining the angular momenta of individual electrons. In light atoms, where the spin-orbit coupling is relatively weak compared to heavier atoms, LS coupling is commonly used. It considers the coupling of the total orbital angular momentum (L) and the total spin angular momentum (S) of the electrons in the atom.

jj coupling is a more sophisticated approach used for heavier atoms where spin-orbit coupling is strong, and it takes into account the coupling of angular momenta of individual electrons before combining them to form the total angular momentum.

Aufbau principle refers to the order in which electrons fill atomic orbitals based on increasing energy levels.

Huckel method is used in quantum chemistry for calculating the energies of molecular orbitals in conjugated organic compounds.

68. A chromatographer wants to flush the chromatographic (HPLC) column using water: ethanol mobile phase using a ratio 9.5 : 0.5 respectively. The chromatographer knows that when 1mole water is added to a larger volume of pure water, the volume increases by 18cm³ as the molar volume of pure water is 18 cm³ mol^-1 . but when 1 mole of water is added to a large volume of ethanol, the volume is increased only by 14cm³ . the quantity 14cm³ mol^-1 is the ____________ volume of water in pure ethanol.

1.      Molar

2.      Quasi molar

3.      Partial molar

4.      Azo molar

ANSWER – 3. Partial molar volume

This is the change in volume of a solution when 1 mole of a substance (in this case, water) is added to a large volume of the solvent (ethanol). It represents the change in volume due to the addition of one mole of the substance to the solution.

69.  In fingerprint scanner, the live scan image acquisition utilize which two technologies among these:

A.      Rotation technology

B.      Elastic distortion technology

C.      Image correlation technology

D.     Frustrated total internal reflection technology

E.      Ultra sound sensing technology

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A and B only

2.      B and C only

3.      C and D only

4.      D and E only

ANSWER – 3. C and D only

In fingerprint scanner systems, the live scan image acquisition typically utilizes the following two techniques:

Image correlation technology: involves comparing the captured fingerprint image with stored templates or reference images to identify and verify the fingerprint.

Frustrated total internal reflection (FTIR) technology: used in optical fingerprint scanners where a prism or waveguide is used to detect fingerprint ridges by measuring the changes in light reflection caused by contact with the ridges.

70. The two types of boosters are:

A.      Solder

B.      Cast

C.      Slip-on

D.     C-4

E.      M118

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A and B only

2.      B and C only

3.      C and D only

4.      D and E only

ANSWER – 4. Dand E only

71. Which of the followings are useful in characterizing pollen grains?

A.      Shape

B.      Rupture

C.      Fiber

D.     Aperture

E.      Pollen tube

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A and B only

2.      B and C only

3.      A and D only

4.      D and E only

ANSWER – 1. A and B only

Shape is most important because pollen grains come in various shapes (spherical, triangular, elliptical, etc.) which can help in determining different species.

Aperture refers to the pores or furrows on the surface of pollen grains through which pollen tube grow during fertilization. The number, shape, and arrangement of apertures are important characteristics used in pollen grain identification.

72. Tyre skid marks present on road surface helps to know about which of the followings?

A.      Assumption on type of vehicle

B.      Side print of tyre

C.      Speed of vehicle

D.     Repair mark of tyre

E.      Cut mark of tyre

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A and C only

2.      B and C only

3.      C and D only

4.      D and A only

ANSWER – 2. B and C only

Tyre skid marks on a road surface can help make assumptions about the type of vehicle based on the width and depth of the marks, though this is often less precise and more general.

Skid mars, primarily provide information about the speed of the vehicle when they were formed, at the length and pattern of the marks can indicate how abruptly the vehicle came to a stop or changed direction.

73. Match List - I with List – II

LIST – I Identifying Features		LIST – II Identification
A.	Faulty development	I.	Yellowish or dark brown stains on the back of teeth
B.	Faculty alignment	II.	Teeth may be under sized, notched, oversized
C.	Stains	III.	Wear of teeth incisor at the angles of mouth due to position of pipe
D.	Localised attrition	IV.	Widely spaced teeth, overriding

 

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

2.      A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

3.      A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

4.      A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

ANSWER - 1.      A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

74. Match List - I with List – II

LIST – I Developing Agent for Photography		LIST – II Discovered by/ First Used by
A.	Para- aminophenol	I.	Elder and Toth
B.	Glycin	II.	Andresen
C.	Catechol	III.	Abney
D.	Hydroquinone	IV.	Bogisch

 

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2.      A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

3.      A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

4.      A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

ANSWER –

Elder and Toth – Glycin

Para aminophenol – Anderson

Catechol – Abney

Hydroquinone - Bogisch

75. Match List - I with List – II

LIST – I		LIST – II
A.	RFLP	I.	Eva Engvall and Peter Perlman
B.	PCR	II.	Alec Jeffreys
C.	Blood Grouping	III.	K.B. Mullis
D.	ELISA	IV.	Karl Landsteiner

 

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2.      A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

3.      A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

4.      A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

ANSWER – 3. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

76. Match List - I with List – II

LIST – I Source		LIST – II Wavelength in nm
A.	H2 / D2 lamp	I.	1200-40000
B.	Tungsten/ halogen	II.	400-20000
C.	Nernst glower	III.	240-2500
D.	Globar	IV.	160-380

 

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

2.      A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

3.      A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

4.      A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

ANSWER

H2/D2 LAMP – typically used for UV spectroscopy, emitting in the UV range, i.e. 240-2500nm

TUNGSTEN/ HALOGEN LAMP – commonly used in visible and near-infrared spectroscopy due to its continuous spectrum, 400-20000nm

NERSNT GLOWER – ceramic source used in infrared spectroscopy, 1200-40000nm

GLOBAR – similar to nerst glower, another infrared source

77. Match List - I with List – II

LIST – I Evidence		LIST – II Section of FSL
A.	Hammer as murder weapon	I.	Chemistry
B.	Skid mark	II.	Toxicology
C.	Khat	III.	Biology
D.	Meconium	IV.	Physics

 

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

2.      A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

3.      A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

4.      A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

ANSWER - 2. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

78.  Document written mechanically using a type writer is identified by type style. The type style vary in size from six to sixteen character per inch. While using IBM machine, this simple arrangement mentioned above is not followed. The style followed by such machine is known as:

1.      Pica

2.      Elite

3.      Minerva

4.      Proportionate spacing

ANSWER – 2. Elite

Elite is the type used in IBM typewriters, with 12 characters per inch. It’s a smaller size compared to Pica.

79. Those working with skeletal remains and modelling clay to reconstruct facial features is known as:

1.      Forensic photographer

2.      Forensic sculptor

3.      Forensic architect

4.      Forensic videographer

ANSWER – 2. Forensic sculptor

80. Which of the under mentioned instrumental technique is used for the separation of small ions only?

1. Micellar electrokinetic capillary chromatography

2.      Capillary array electrophoresis

3.      Capillary zone electrophoresis

4.      Capillary gel electrophoresis

ANSWER – 3. Capillary zone electrophoresis

Capillary zone electrophoresis: CZE is a technique used for separating small ions based on their electrophoretic mobility in an electric field within a capillary tube.

Micellar electrokinetic capillary chromatography: MECC combines the principles of capillary electrophoresis with chromatographic separations using micellar solutions to enhance separation efficiency, especially for neutral and charged analytes.

Capillary array electrophoresis: CAE involves multiple capillaries used simultaneously in analyte samples, often used for high-throughput analysis, but its not specifically designed for small ions.

Capillary gel electrophoresis: CGE uses a sieving gel matrix inside the capillary to separate molecules based on size, typically used for larger molecules such as DNA fragments or protein, not specifically designed for small ions.

81. In firearm injury, beveling of bone is caused due to:

1.      When bullet is lodged inside the body

2.      Contact firing

3.      Ricochet

4.      Cone cracking

ANSWER - 2. Contact firing

The beveling of bone in firearm injury refers to the characteristic appearance of the bone around the entrance wound caused by the bullet. This beveling occurs due to the high-velocity impact of the bullet, which creates a pressure wave that fractures the bone in a cone-shaped pattern away from the direction of the bullet's path.

It is caused by contact firing. Contact firing refers to situations where the muzzle of the firearm is pressed directly against the body when fired. This close range results in the high-velocity bullet causing the characteristic beveling of bone around the entrance wound.

82. A term used by fire investigators to describe a combustible material or ignitable fluid intentionally placed to spread fire from one location to another:

1.      Trailer

2.      Charring

3.      Clean burn

4.      Ceiling jet

ANSWER - 1. Trailer

Trailer refers to materials or objects intentionally positioned to facilitate the spread of fire, such as from one room to another or from one part of a structure to another.

83. Device which stops specific communication from computer to a mass storage device is:

1.      Code red

2.      MOBILedit

3.      Write blocker

4.      Qualcomm chipset

ANSWER - 3.  Write blocker

• A write blocker is a device or software tool used in computer forensics that prevents write access to storage devices such as hard drives, solid-state drives (SSDs), and USB drives. It allows investigators to access and examine the contents of a storage device without altering the data on it.
• Code Red: This typically refers to a specific computer virus or malware and is not related to preventing communication between a computer and a storage device.
• MOBILedit: MOBILedit is software used for managing mobile phones and may not directly relate to preventing communication with an AMS (Automated Manifest System) storage device.
• Qualcomm chipset: Qualcomm chipsets are commonly found in mobile devices and are not specifically designed to stop communication between a computer and a storage device.

84. Sir Francis Galton is known to have made very important contribution to the science of fingerprint. Sir Francis Galton was also a cousin of one of these famous scientists. Specify the name:

1.      Mendel

2.      Newton

3.      Faraday

4.      Darwin

ANSWER - 4. Darwin

85. The term “Hiatus” is associated with:

1.      Ballistics

2.      Toxicology

3.      Fingerprint

4.      Document

ANSWER – 4. Document

86. Immediate sign of death constitute:

1.      Molecular or cellular death

2.      Decomposition or decay

3.      Adipocere or mummification

4.      Somatic or clinical death

ANSWER - 4.  Somatic or clinical death

Clinical death is the moment when a person's heart stops beating and they stop breathing. It is characterized by the cessation of circulation and respiration. This is often considered the legal and medical definition of death in many jurisdictions.

Somatic death is another term for clinical death, indicating the death of the body as a whole, where all bodily functions have irreversibly ceased.

The other options do not represent immediate signs of death but rather subsequent changes that occur after death:

• Molecular death refers to the death of individual cells or cessation of cellular functions, which occurs after clinical death.
• Decomposition is the breakdown of tissues and organs after death due to microbial activity, which occurs over time.
• Adipocere or mummification are specific processes of preservation or transformation of the body that occur under certain environmental conditions after death.

 

87. Which of these is not true for teeth?

A.      Teeth has a calcified connective tissue called dentin

B.      In enamel, amelogenin is the major protein of the organic matrix

C.      Teeth, produce a residue of saliva which contain cell free DNA

D.     Dentin of the crown is covered by a layer of enamel

E.      Teeth have keratinized cells that protect dentin

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A, B, C only

2.      A, C, E only

3.      D, C E only

4.      A, B, D only

ANSWER - 4.  A, B, D only

• Dentin is a calcified tissue that forms the bulk of the tooth structure beneath the enamel and cementum.
• Amelogenin is indeed the major protein component of enamel, which is the hard outer layer of the tooth
• Enamel covers the dentin of the crown, providing a protective and hard outer layer

88. The pre column used between (i) mobile phase reservoir and injector, (ii) injector and separator column in HPLC is known by:

A.      Filter column

B.      Guard column

C.      Analytical column

D.     Scavenger column

E.      Capillary column

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      (i) A, (ii) D only

2.      (i) B, (ii) C only

3.      (i) A, (ii) E only

4.      (i) D, (ii) B only

ANSWER - 2.  (i) B and (ii) C only

• A guard column is a short column filled with the same packing material as the analytical column.
• Its primary purpose is to protect the analytical column from contamination and irreversibly adsorbed impurities that could affect chromatographic performance.
• The analytical column is the main component where the separation of components in the sample occurs based on their interaction with the stationary phase.
• It is filled with the stationary phase material (e.g., silica or other materials with bonded phases) which interacts with the sample components.
• The sample injected from the injector passes through the analytical column where separation occurs based on differential partitioning between the mobile phase (solvent) and the stationary phase.

89. Two most commonly used biometrics identifiers are:

A.      Ear shape

B.      Finger print

C.      Lip motion

D.     Face

E.      Skin reflectance

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A and B only

2.      B and D only

3.      C and B only

4.      D and A only

ANSWER – 2. B and D only

90. Electrophoresis functions in a suitable support medium under controlled conditions that include:

A.      Temperature and chemical reaction

B.      Chemical reaction and voltage

C.      pH of voltage

D.     pH and nature of analyte

E.      temperature and time

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      C and E only

2.      C and B only

3.      A and E only

4.      A and D only

ANSWER - 1.  C and E only

• Temperature affects the viscosity of the medium and the speed of migration of molecules. Time is crucial for allowing separation to occur over a specific period.
• pH of the buffer solution is crucial in electrophoresis as it affects the charge of analytes, which influences their migration. Voltage is also essential for creating an electric field necessary for migration.

91. During microscope examination of questioned document, high power magnification is not preferred due to which of the under mentioned reasons:

A.      Could not be photographed

B.      Dilution of color of ink

C.      May cause blurred image

D.     Reduction in field view

E.      Damage to the document due to weight of microscope

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A and C only

2.      B and D only

3.      C and D only

4.      D and E only

ANSWER - 3.  C and D

During microscopic examination of questioned documents, high power magnification is not preferred primarily due to:

May cause blurred image - High power magnification can lead to a narrower depth of field, making it more difficult to keep the entire image in focus. This can result in blurred images, especially when examining detailed features or textures on the document.

Reduction in the field of view - As magnification increases, the area visible through the microscope decreases. This reduction in the field of view can make it challenging to observe larger sections of the document or to get an overview of the entire questioned area.

92. Which of the following chemicals are used in narco analysis test?

A.      Dinitro chlorohydrin

B.      Ammonium picrate

C.      Sodium amytal

D.     Nitroglycol

E.      Thiopentone sodium

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A and B only

2.      B and C only

3.      C and E only

4.      D and B only

ANSWER - 3.  C and E

Sodium amytal, also known as sodium thiopental, is a barbiturate and is indeed used in narcoanalysis to induce a hypnotic or sedative state.

Thiopentone sodium, also known as thiopental sodium, is a barbiturate similar to sodium amytal and is used in narcoanalysis to induce a sedative state.

93. Extraction of drug from biological fluid using micellar medium, which of the under mentioned factors are responsible for micellar formation in surfactants:

A.      Surfactant should be above critical micellar concentration

B.      Surfactant should be solvated in non-polar medium

C.      Should be given enough reaction time

D.     Ultra low surfactant strength

E.      Should be above Krafft temperature

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A and E only

2.      A and B only

3.      C and D only

4.      B and E only

ANSWER - 1. A and E

Critical micellar concentration is the concentration at which surfactant molecules aggregate to form micelles in aqueous solution. Above CMC, surfactant molecules exist in micellar form, which is essential for the extraction process.

Kraft temperature is related to the solubility of surfactants in solvents

94. HPLC is one of the separation technique which is also known as a non-destructive technique. This is only true when which of the under mentioned detectors are not coupled to it?

A.      UVD

B.      FLD

C.      RID

D.     ECD

E.      MS

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      D and E

2.      C and E

3.      A and D

4.      B and D

ANSWER - 1. D and E

·        UV detector - Ultraviolet (UV) detectors are non-destructive and measure absorbance of UV light by analytes. They do not destroy the sample.

·        FLD (Fluorescence detector) - Fluorescence detectors are also non-destructive as they measure the fluorescence emission of analytes without altering the sample.

·        RID (Refractive Index detector) - Refractive Index detectors are non-destructive and detect changes in refractive index caused by analytes passing through the detector cell.

·        ECD (Electrochemical detector) - Electrochemical detectors can be destructive depending on the conditions (e.g., oxidation or reduction reactions can occur).

·        MS (Mass Spectrometry detector) - Mass Spectrometry detectors can be destructive as they ionize and fragment molecules for analysis.

95. For age estimation from teeth, it is necessary to know:

A.      The difference between two sets of teeth

B.      Color difference between two sets of teeth

C.      The time of their eruption

D.     The period when their root calcification is complete

E.      Size of each teeth

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A, B, D only

2.      B, D, E only

3.      A, B, E only

4.      A, C, D only

ANSWER - 4.  A, C and D

·        Understanding the difference between deciduous (baby) teeth and permanent teeth is important for age estimation as teeth erupt and are replaced.

·        Knowing the sequence and timing of tooth eruption is crucial for age estimation.

·        Root formation and calcification of teeth occur in predictable stages and are used to estimate age.

Read the given passage carefully and answer the following questions (96-100)

A female had gone to take a round of her fruit orchard. While coming back towards her home, she went to a nearby spring to drink water. This female never reached her home. The family members reported in the nearby police station. Police officers went in search of this female and continued search till midnight but could not locate her. In the early hours of next day, police officers again went in search of this female and found her body on the bank of the spring flowing in this area. Soon the body was taken into custody by the police and the body was sent for post-mortem. Beer bottles were also found at the site. Meanwhile the locals alleged that this female has been raped by the security personal and went out on agitation, destroying public property.

No external injuries or sign of a fault was observed during post-mortem examination.

 96. No diatoms were found in the lungs which could be matched with the diatoms found in the sample of water collected from the spring is suggestive of?

1.      Death due to drowning

2.      Death due to overdose of drugs

3.      Death due to hanging

4.      Death due to physical assault

ANSWER – 1. Death due to drowning

97. What type of evidence could be collected from the beer present in the bottles at this site?

1.      Swear stain

2.      Blood stain

3.      Fingerprints

4.      Sedative drugs

ANSWER – 4. Sedative drugs

98. The vaginal swab was collected to determine the presence of:

1.      Semen

2.      Amino acid

3.      Hair follicles

4.      Faecal matter

ANSWER – 1. Semen

99. Who amongst these is eligible to conduct post-mortem?

1.      Divisional commissioner

2.      Tahsildar

3.      Forensic expert

4.      General practitioner

ANSWER – 3. Forensic Expert

100. The presence of male an female fractions in vaginal swab can be ascertained correctly by:

1.      Dactylography

2.      Protein analysis

3.      DNA fingerprinting

4.      ELISA

ANSWER – 3. DNA fingerprinting

Read the given passage carefully and answer the following questions (101-105)

In a family, parents occupied one room and their teenager daughter had occupied a separate room. One fine day, this girl received a digital camera by courier as a birthday gift from her parents which was supposed to be celebrated in next few days. All the members of the family except male servant were trying to capture pictures with this camera. After dinner every one went to their respective rooms except male servant as he was not done with his work in the kitchen. Next day in the morning. Part time maid rang the door bell. The mother of this girl realised that male servant has not opened the gate so she went to open it. To her surprise she found the male servant missing in this flat with main door locked and then went to wake up her daughter. There she found her daughter lying in the pool of blood on her bed with slit throat. Mother woke up the father of this girl and they found a whisky bottle and dew glasses on the dinning table. Parents assumed that this male servant has killed their daughter after raping her and is now absconding. Later the body of this male servant was located dumped in the water tank on the terrace of this building. The room where body of this girl was lying had spatter of blood stains on the roof.

101. Which of the following would be most preferred test to opine rape from vaginal swab?

1.      Acid phosphate test

2.      DNA fingerprinting

3.      Takayama test

4.      Phadebas test

ANSWER – 1. Acid Phosphate Test

102. Which of these would be preferred to develop latent fingerprints, if present on the outer surface of the glasses?

1.      Dragondroff spray

2.      Pepper spray

3.      Ninhydrin spray

4.      KI spray

ANSWER – 3. Ninhydrin Spray

103. Which of these would help to opine on the weapon used to commit crime?

1.      Nature of injury

2.      Entry wound

3.      Exit wound

4.      Amount of blood loss

ANSWER – 1. Nature of injury

104. Blood spattering on the roof at the scene of crime helps to know:

1.      Position of the weapon used to commit injury

2.      Number of individuals involved to commit crime

3.      Position of the body when injured

4.      Presence of menstrual blood

ANSWER – 1. Position of the weapon used to commit injury

105. Which digital evidence is most suitable/ best evidence for tracing the accused?

1.      Mobile tower location

2.      Clear CCTV footage

3.      Call details

4.      Time shown on digital clock

ANSWER - 1. Mobile tower location

Mobile tower location data can provide a clear indication of the geographic locations where the accused's mobile phone was active, thereby aiding in tracing their movements and potential whereabouts

106. What does ”PDD” stand for, in relation to polygraph test?

1.      Pulse determination device

2.      Psychoneurological detection of deception

3.      Psychoanalytical deception detectors

4.      Psychoneurological deception device

ANSWER – 2. Psycho-physiological Detection of Deception

PDD stands for psychoneurological detection device in relation to a polygraph test. It is a tool used to measure physiological responses such as heart rate, blood pressure, and skin conductivity to detect deception. The PDD helps examiners analyze these responses to determine if someone is being truthful or deceptive during the polygraph examination.

107. In mass spectrometry, the mass analyzer which is based on trapping of ions in cubic cell under the influence of trapping voltage and magnetic field is known as:

1.      Magnetic sector mass analyzer

2.      Ion cyclotron resonance mass analyzer

3.      Ion trap mass analyzer

4.      Quadrupole mass analyzer

ANSWER - 2. Ion cyclotron Resonance mass analyzer

Ion cyclotron resonance mass analyzer operates by trapping ions in a three-dimensional quadrupole ion trap and then applying a radiofrequency electric field perpendicular to a static magnetic field. The ions move in a circular or spiral motion at their resonant frequency, which is determined by their mass-to-charge ratio.

108. Chemiluminescence is observed in which of these tests?

1.      Fluorescein

2.      Ouchterlony double diffusion test

3.      Precipitin ring test

4.      Luminol

ANSWER – 4. Luminol

Luminol is a chemical that exhibits chemiluminescence when it reacts with an oxidizing agent (such as hydrogen peroxide) in the presence of a catalyst (such as iron ions). This reaction produces a blue glow, which is used in forensic science to detect bloodstains.

109. The alcohol content in an alcoholic beverage depends upon:

1.      The way that beverage is prepared

2.      Raw material used in its preparation

3.      Presence of flavoring agents

4.      Type of barrel used for aging

ANSWER – 2. Raw material used in its preparation

The alcohol content in alcoholic beverages is primarily determined by the amount of fermentable sugars present in the raw materials used during the fermentation process. These raw materials can include grains (such as barley, wheat, and corn for beer and whiskey), fruits (such as grapes for wine), and other sources of fermentable sugars.

110. Which one is correct for a deflorate women after rape ( which may be seen in females without child birth also)?

1.      Hymen is not cibiform

2.      Vaginal orifice is wrinkled

3.      Hymen is deeply situated

4.      Vaginal orifice is dilated

ANSWER – 4. Vaginal orifice is dilated

After sexual intercourse or childbirth, the vaginal orifice may appear dilated or stretched due to the passage of the penis during intercourse or the baby during childbirth

111. Deciphering of erased writing, written by which of the following writing instrument on a simple paper is difficult?

1.      Fountain pen

2.      Ball point pen

3.      Pencil

4.      Sketch pen

ANSWER - 3. Pencil

Deciphering erased writing on simple paper is most difficult when it's written with a pencil. Pencil marks can be easily erased and smudged, making it challenging to retrieve the original writing. Fountain pens, ballpoint pens, and sketch pens leave more permanent marks on paper, which can make erased writing easier to read in comparison to pencil.

112. What is the primary function of live scan device in Forensic Fingerprinting?

1.      To create permanent inked impression of fingerprint for archival purpose

2.      To capture digital image of fingerprint and palm print without using ink

3.      To analyse chemical composition of latent fingerprint by spraying chemical and scanning

4.      To classify fingerprint pattern based on scanning of ridges

ANSWER - 2.  To capture digital image of fingerprint and palm print without using ink.

Live scan devices are used to create digital images of fingerprints and palm prints by scanning them directly, without the need for ink. This digital capture allows for efficient storage, comparison, and sharing of fingerprint data for forensic and identification purposes.

113. What is flame point in relation to flash point in fire crime scenario?

1.      It is significantly lower than the flash point

2.      It is slightly higher than the flash point

3.      It is equal to the flash point

4.      It is not related to the flash point

ANSWER - 2.  It is slightly higher than the flash point

In the context of flammable substances, the flame point refers to the temperature at which a substance will produce a flame when exposed to an ignition source. On the other hand, the flash point is the lowest temperature at which vapors of a substance will ignite momentarily in the presence of an ignition source.

The flame point is typically slightly higher than the flash point. This means that while the flash point indicates the temperature at which a substance’s vapors can ignite momentarily, the flame point represents the temperature at which sustained combustion or a visible flame can occur.

114. Forged sealing wax used to seal an envelop so as to make the seal look original can be detected by using:

1.      Ordinary light

2.      Ultra violet light

3.      Transmitted light

4.      Oblique light

ANSWER - 2.  Ultra violet light

Forged or altered seals on envelopes or documents can sometimes be detected using ultraviolet (UV) light. UV light can reveal alterations or discrepancies that are not visible under normal (ordinary) light.

115. Maggots in dead bodies appear in 1-2 days. They have _____ and penetrate the skin rapidly.

1.      Carbohydrate breaking enzyme

2.      Proteolytic enzymes

3.      Fat breaking enzymes

4.      Catalyze changing properties

ANSWER - 2.  Proteolytic enzymes

Maggots, particularly those of blowflies and flesh flies, are attracted to decomposing organic matter, such as dead bodies. They have proteolytic enzymes that allow them to break down proteins present in the tissue of the dead body. These enzymes help maggots to digest and penetrate the skin rapidly after hatching, which accelerates the decomposition process.

116. Debris from fire crime scene should be packed in:

1.      Wooden box with small lid

2.      Sealed metal box with a tight lid

3.      Cardboard box with self sealing lid

4.      Plastic box with temperature control system

ANSWER - 2. Sealed metal box with a tight lid

117. Lithium drifted silicon detector is used in:

1.      Polarographic technique

2.      Neutron activation analysis

3.      Mass spectrometric technique

4.      X-ray technique

ANSWER - 4.  X-Ray technique

Lithium-drifted silicon detectors are commonly used in x-ray spectroscopy techniques. These detectors are specifically designed to detect and measure x-rays emitted by a sample when it is exposed to an x-ray source. The detectors are sensitive to the energy of the x-rays, allowing for precise analysis of the elemental composition of the sample based on the characteristic x-ray emission lines.

118. In phenolphthalein test (Kastle Meyer Test0, the presence of human blood is confirmed if _____ color is produced.

1.      Brown

2.      Pink or purple

3.      Yellow

4.      Green

ANSWER - 2.  Pink to purple

119. In Duquenois Levine presumptive test for cannabis_____ color is observed due to presence of cannabinoids.

1.      Golden

2.      Violet

3.      Yellow

4.      Orange

ANSWER – 2. Violet

120. All of these are correct in “rifled weapon” except:

1.      Entry wound/ injury is small and round

2.      If fired from long distance, the injury caused to the internal organs is less

3.      Presence of wad in close contact fire

4.      No exit wound in certain occasions is observed

ANSWER – 3. Presence of wad in close contact fire

121. Which one is not the general factor responsible for directly affecting in the construction of an I.E.D.?

1.      Access to explosive

2.      The skill of assembler

3.      Blast fragmentation

4.      Access to non-explosive components

ANSWER - 3.  Blast fragmentation

Blast fragmentation refers to the dispersal of fragments or shrapnel generated by an explosion. While blast fragmentation is a consequence of an explosion and can affect the damage radius and pattern, it is not directly involved in the construction or assembly of the I.E.D itself.

122. To form a crystal glass, which of the following component is used in place of calcium oxide present in soda lime glass?

1.      Silicon oxide

2.      Lead oxide

3.      Selenium oxide

4.      Nickel oxide

ANSWER - 2.  Lead oxide

Lead oxide helps in reducing the viscosity of the glass melt and gives crystal glass its characteristic optical properties such as brilliance and high refractive index.

123. Name the type of consonant produced when vocal cord vibration starts at about the same time as the release of supralaryngeal structure.

1.      Voiced consonant

2.      Aspirated consonant

3.      Voiceless unaspirated consonant

4.      Disguised consonant

ANSWER - 1.  Voiced consonant

These are produced with simultaneous vibration of the vocal cords. When the supralaryngeal structures release to form a consonant (such as /b/, /d/, /g/ in English), the vocal cords are already vibrating, producing a voiced sound.

124. Arrange the steps in increasing order to be followed to carry out Teichmann Crystal test:

A.      Place a suspected stain or material on glass slide

B.      Apply het using flame placed below slide

C.      Cover with cover slip

D.     Add a small crystal of NaCl and glacial acetic acid

E.      Coll and examine under microscope

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      B, E, D, C, A

2.      A, D, C, B, E

3.      A, B, C, D, E

4.      A, C, B, D, E

ANSWER – 2. A, D, C, B, E

125. The correct sequence of process of restoration of erased serial number on metal key surface is:

A.      Polishing of key surface using sand paper

B.      Photography of key surface for restored mark or serial number

C.      Application of restoration reagent on key surface

D.     Visual examination using hand lens

E.      Preparation of report of restoration and number revealed

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A, B, C, D, E

2.      B, C, D, E, A

3.      C, A, B, D, E

4.      D, A, C, B, E

ANSWER – 4. D, A, C, B, E

126. Arrange in increasing order the protocol to be followed for chemical analysis of blood:

A.      Preliminary tests that permit a presumption of the presence of certain types of evidences

B.      Careful preliminary physical examination of the item to spot potential evidence

C.      Sensitive and specific confirmatory tests of chemical identity of the evidence

D.     Careful recording of the evidence and its exact location

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      B, D, A, C

2.      A, B, C, D

3.      D, C, B, A

4.      B, A, C, D

ANSWER – 1. B, D, A, C

127. Arrange chronology of ossification in males in increasing order with respect to age:

A.      The pisiform ossifies

B.      The condylar portion of occipital bone fuse with the squama

C.      The epiphysis of calcaneum join the bones

D.     A centre of ossification appears in the medial epicondyle of the humerus

E.      The rami of pubis and ischium unite

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      C, A, E, B, D

2.      B, D, E, A, C

3.      B, A, D, C, E

4.      E, C, A, B, D

ANSWER - 3. B, A, D, C, E

·        condylar portion of occipital bone fuse with the squama: This occurs early in fetal development, around 12 weeks of gestation.

·         pisiform ossifies: This occurs around 9-12 years of age.

·         centre of ossification appears in the medial epicondyle of humerus: This occurs around 16 years of age.

·         epiphysis of calcaneum join the bones: This occurs around 14-16 years of age.

·         rami of pubis and ischium unite: This occurs around 14-17 years of age

128. The correct sequence involved in the development of fingerprint using ESDA is:

A.      Tilting and shaking of stage containing toner

B.      Electro charging the surface using high voltage corona band

C.      Lamination using adhesive acetate sheet

D.     Laying of ultra thin polyester film

E.      Development of intricate fringes

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      E, D, B, A, C

2.      D, B, E, A, C

3.      D, B, A, C, E

4.      C, E, D, B, A

ANSWER - 2. D, B, E, A, C

·        Laying of Ultra-Thin Polyester Film: The first step involves laying an ultra-thin polyester film over the document containing the latent fingerprint.

·        Electro Charging the Surface using High Voltage Corona Band: Next, the surface is electrostatically charged using a high voltage corona band. This process helps in transferring the toner particles from the document to the polyester film.

·        Development of Intricate Fringes: As a result of the electrostatic charge, intricate fringes start to develop on the polyester film where toner particles have been transferred.

·        Tilting and Shaking of Stage Containing Toner: The stage containing the toner is then tilted and shaken to allow excess toner to fall off, leaving behind a visible image of the latent fingerprint on the polyester film.

·        Lamination using Adhesive Acetate Sheet: Finally, to preserve and protect the developed fingerprint, it is laminated using an adhesive acetate sheet.

129. Arrange the given mode of administration of drug in order of rapidity of onset of action in human:

A.      Introduction into natural orifices

B.      Application on wound

C.      Injection

D.     Intravenous

E.      Intramuscular

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      C, D, E, B, A

2.      D, C, E, A, B

3.      E, C, D, B, A

4.      D, E, B, C, A

ANSWER - 4. D, E, B, C, A

·        Intravenous - Directly into the bloodstream, providing the fastest onset of action.

·        Intramuscular - Injected into the muscle, absorption is generally faster than other routes intravenous administration.

·        Application on wound - Applied directly to a wound, can be quite rapid depending on the drug and wound conditions.

·        Injection - Generally faster than absorption through natural orifices.

·        Into natural orifices - Absorption through natural orifices (such as oral, nasal, rectal) tends to be slower compared to injection routes.

130. What is the correct sequence of loading a blow back weapon?

A.      Breech block unlocks and recoils backward and compress a spring

B.      Breech block carries another cartridge and leads into the chamber

C.      The compressed spring pushes the breech block to its original position

D.     Barrel of the weapon and the breech block recoil together

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A. B, C, D

2.      A, D, C, B

3.      D, A, B, C

4.      D, A, C, B

ANSWER - 2.  A, D, C, B

·        Breech block unlocks and recoils backward and compresses a spring: The first step in the loading sequence of a blowback weapon is for the breech block to unlock and recoil backward. During this movement, a spring is compressed.

·        Barrel of the weapon and breech block recoil together: As the breech block moves backward, it carries the barrel of the weapon with it as they recoil together.

·        The compressed spring pushes the breech block to its original position: Once the breech block reaches its maximum rearward position, the compressed spring exerts force to push the breech block back to its original position.

·        Breech block carries another cartridge and leads it into the chamber: As the breech block returns to its original position, it picks up another cartridge and guides it into the chamber for firing.

131. What is the correct sequence of processing of crime scene investigation?

A.      Search of crime scene

B.      Protection of crime scene

C.      Photography of crime scene

D.     Sketching of crime scene

E.      Collection of physical evidence

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A, B, C, D, E

2.      B, C, D, A, E

3.      C, B, D, E, A

4.      D, E, B, C, A

ANSWER - 2. B, C, D, A, E

132. In order of increasing sensitivity arrange the detectors coupled with a liquid chromatographic system

A.      HPLC-PDA

B.      HPLC-QTOF

C.      HPLC-RI

D.     HPLC-MS

E.      HPLC-UV

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      E, C, A, B, D

2.      C, E, A, D, B

3.      D, C, A, E, B

4.      C, A, E, D, B

ANSWER - 2. C, E, A, D, B

• HPLC-RI (Refractive Index Detector) - This detector measures changes in refractive index caused by the analyte eluting from the column. It is generally less sensitive compared to other detectors because it does not detect specific wavelengths or masses of analytes.
• HPLC-UV (Ultraviolet Detector) - UV detectors measure absorbance of light at specific wavelengths, typically in the UV range. They are more sensitive than RI detectors because they can detect specific UV-absorbing analytes.
• HPLC-PDA (Photodiode Array Detector) - PDA detectors are capable of measuring absorbance over a range of wavelengths simultaneously. They are more sensitive than single-wavelength UV detectors (like HPLC-UV) because they provide spectral information.
• HPLC-MS (Mass Spectrometry Detector) - Mass spectrometry detectors are highly sensitive and can detect and quantify analytes based on their mass-to-charge ratio (m/z). They are more sensitive than UV and PDA detectors because they provide both qualitative and quantitative information about analytes at very low concentrations.
• HPLC-QTOF (Quadrupole Time-of-Flight Detector) - QTOF detectors are a type of mass spectrometry detector that offers high sensitivity and high resolution. They are typically more sensitive than standard quadrupole MS detectors because of their ability to accurately measure m/z ratios and fragment ions.

133. First criminologist who attempted to classify criminals on the basis pf race, sex, age, physical characteristics, education and geographic region is:

1.      Cesare Lombroso

2.      Wynne E. Barter

3.      Annie Chapman

4.      George M.

ANSWER - 1. Cesare Lombroso

He proposed that criminals could be identified by physical characteristics or stigmata of degeneration, which he believed were indicative of an atavistic (primitive or evolutionary throwback) nature. Lombroso's work laid the foundation for the study of criminal anthropology and the idea that certain physical traits could predispose individuals to criminal behavior.

134. The two reagents required in Benzidine test are:

1.      Benzidine in glacial acetic acid and hydrogen peroxide

2.      Benzidine in glacial acetic acid and pyridine

3.      Benzidine in glacial acetic acid and zinc dust

4.      Benzidine in glacial acetic acid and crystal of sodium chloride

ANSWER -  1. Benzidine in glacial acetic acid and hydrogen peroxide

• Benzidine Solution: Benzidine is a carcinogenic compound that reacts with the heme group in hemoglobin to produce a blue color.
• Hydrogen Peroxide Solution (H₂O₂): Hydrogen peroxide acts as an oxidizing agent in the reaction with benzidine and hemoglobin to produce the characteristic blue color.
• Acidic Buffer Solution: A buffered acidic solution (often containing acetic acid or citric acid) is used to adjust the pH of the reaction mixture to optimize the color development.

135. When feet do not touch the ground and the weight of the whole body acts as a constricting force, it is called:

1.      Partial hanging

2.      Strangulation

3.      Complete hanging

4.      Smothering

ANSWER -  3. Complete hanging

In complete suspension hanging:

• The body is completely off the ground.
• The constriction force is primarily due to the weight of the body pulling against the ligature (rope, cord, or similar material) around the neck.
• This type of hanging is often associated with suicidal hanging and is one of the common methods of completing suicide by hanging.

136. The Henderson-Hasselbatch Equation is used to calculate the _________

1.      Molarity of solution

2.      Polarity of solution

3.      Ionic strength of solution

4.      pH of buffer

ANSWER - 4. pH of buffer

The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation is used to calculate the pH of a buffer solution. Specifically, it relates the pH of the solution to the pKa of the weak acid or base and the concentrations of the acid and its conjugate base (or base and its conjugate acid) in the buffer solution.

137. In case of motor vehicle accident, what is the term used to describe the stretching and deformation of light bulb filament due to rapid change in motion while filament is hot?

1.      Thermal breakdown

2.      Filament rupture

3.      Rapid filament disruption

4.      Hot shock

ANSWER - 2. Filament rupture

Filament rupture occurs when the hot filament of a light bulb, which is designed to operate in a stable and relatively stationary environment, is subjected to sudden and extreme movements or accelerations typical of a vehicle collision. This can lead to the physical stretching and eventual breaking of the filament due to the inertial forces acting on it

138. Blood drops are held together by cohesion force to maintain the _____ of the blood drop.

1.      Shape

2.      Color

3.      Density

4.      Volume

ANSWER - 1. Shape

Cohesion refers to the intermolecular force that holds molecules or similar particles together within a substance. In the case of blood drops, cohesion is responsible for keeping the molecules of the blood together in a coherent shape, such as the characteristic teardrop shape typically observed in bloodstain patterns. Thus, cohesion ensures that the blood drop maintains its overall shape despite external forces or impacts.

139. The correct sequence involved in preparing HDD for storage use is:

A.      Defining set of blocks

B.      Logically defining disk

C.      Dividing platters into trac and sectors

D.     Initiating portions

E.      Creating file system

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      B, D, C, A, E

2.      A, B, C, E, D

3.      C, A, D, E, B

4.      D, A, B, C, E

140. Arrange the following symptoms in sequence of their occurrence caused by toxin “Bacillus botulinum”:

A.      Delirium or coma

B.      Diplopia

C.      Rise in body temperature

D.     Dryness of mouth

E.      Vomiting

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A, B, C, D, E

2.      C, E, D, A, B

3.      E, D, C, B, A

4.      D, C, B, A, E

ANSWER- 3. E, D, C, B, A

• Vomiting:  Vomiting is commonly experienced as the toxin affects the gastrointestinal system.
• Dryness of mouth: As the toxin progresses through the body, dryness of the mouth can occur due to its effects on nerve function and muscle control.
• Rise in body temperature: This is one of the initial symptoms observed in cases of botulism caused by Bacillus botulinum.
• Diplopia: Diplopia, or double vision, is a symptom that may manifest as the toxin continues to affect nerve function and muscle control.
• Delirium or coma: In severe cases of botulism, delirium or coma can develop as the toxin affects the nervous system and leads to paralysis.

141. Give the correct sequence of examination of soil in forensic science laboratory.

A.      Visual examination for color comparison

B.      Sample preparation

C.      Particle size distribution

D.     pH examination of soil

E.      instrument analysis

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A, B, C, D, E

2.      B, A, C, D, E

3.      C, D, E, B, A

4.      D, E, B, C, A

ANSWER – 2. B, A, C, D, E

142. Match List - I with List – II

LIST – I		LIST – II
A.	Float glass	I.	Heat resistant
B.	Borosilicate	II.	Glass cooled over molten tin
C.	Tempered glass	III.	Bonded sheet of glass
D.	Laminated glass	IV.	Rapidly heated and cooled

 

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

2.      A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

3.      A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

4.      A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

ANSWER - 4. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

·        Float glass is produced by pouring molten glass onto a surface of molten tin, allowing it to spread out evenly and create a smooth surface as it cools and solidifies.

·        Borosilicate glass is highly resistant to thermal shock due to its low coefficient of thermal expansion. This property makes it suitable for applications where the glass is subjected to rapid temperature changes, such as laboratory glassware, cookware, and some high-performance optical applications.

·        Tempered glass is created by heating ordinary glass to a very high temperature and then rapidly cooling it. This rapid cooling process creates compressive stresses on the surface while the interior remains in tension.

·        Laminated glass is made by sandwiching a layer of polyvinyl butyral (PVB) or other interlayer material between two or more sheets of glass. The layers are bonded together under heat and pressure to create a single unit.

143. Match List - I with List – II micelle shape and surfactant parameter

LIST – I Ns		LIST – II Micelle shape
A.	< 0.33	I.	Cylindrical rod
B.	0.33 – 0.50	II.	Reverse micelle and other shape
C.	0.50 – 1.00	III.	Spherical
D.	> 1.00	IV.	vesicles

 

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2.      A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

3.      A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

4.      A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

144. Match List - I with List – II

LIST – I		LIST – II
A.	Nessler’s reagent	I.	Saliva
B.	Phadebas reagent	II.	Vaginal secretions
C.	Christmas tree stain	III.	Semen
D.	Periodic acid-schiff reagent	IV.	Urine

 

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

2.      A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

3.      A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

4.      A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

ANSWER - 4. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

·        Nessler's reagent is used to detect the presence of ammonia or ammonium ions (NH₄⁺) in a urine. It consists of a mixture of potassium iodide (KI) and mercuric iodide (HgI₂) dissolved in aqueous potassium hydroxide (KOH). When Nessler's reagent is added to a solution containing ammonia or ammonium ions, it forms a yellow to brown coloration, indicating the presence of ammonia compounds.

·        Phadebas reagent, also known as Phadebas Amylase Test Reagent, is a specific reagent used in clinical laboratories for the quantitative determination of alpha-amylase activity in saliva.

·        Periodic acid- Schiff reagent staining can be applied to detect glycogen in epithelial cells shed from the vaginal wall. The presence of glycogen in vaginal epithelial cells is an indicator of estrogenic activity.

145. Match List - I with List – II

LIST – I		LIST – II
A.	Indian ink	I.	Ink having a long life under reasonable condition of storage of documents
B.	Quick drying ink	II.	Ink used to cancel postage stamp
C.	Record ink	III.	Ink made from lamp black
D.	Cancelling ink	IV.	Ink where volatile liquid is used as vehicle in place of water

 

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

2.      A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

3.      A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

4.      A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

ANSWER - . 3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

·        Record ink is formulated specifically to be durable and resistant to fading, ensuring that documents written with this ink can withstand aging and storage over long periods without significant deterioration. It is commonly used for legal documents, records, and archival purposes where longevity and permanence are crucial.

·        Cancelling ink is specially formulated to mark postage stamps, indicating that they have been used and cannot be reused. It typically contains dyes that are difficult to remove or alter, ensuring that the stamp cannot be reused for postage.

·        Indian ink, also known as India ink or Chinese ink, traditionally contains lamp black (a pigment made from soot) mixed with a binding agent such as shellac or gum arabic. It is commonly used for drawing, calligraphy, and other artistic purposes due to its rich black color and permanence on paper.

·        Quick-drying ink formulations typically use volatile solvents such as alcohols (e.g., ethanol or isopropanol) or other volatile organic compounds as the vehicle instead of water. This allows the ink to dry quickly after application, which is beneficial in applications such as printing and writing where fast drying times are desired.

146. Match List - I with List – II

LIST – I		LIST – II
A.	Drop shot	I.	Combination of lead and antimony
B.	Buck shot	II.	Copper coated
C.	Hard shot	III.	Metal slug
D.	Plated shot	IV.	Pure lead

 

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A- I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

2.      A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

3.      A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

4.      A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

ANSWER - 2. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

·        Hard shot refers to lead pellets that have been hardened by the addition of antimony. This makes them more durable and suitable for use in shotgun shells for hunting and shooting sports.

·        Plated shot refers to lead pellets that are coated with a thin layer of copper. This coating provides several benefits, including reduced barrel fouling, improved penetration, and increased hardness and durability compared to untreated lead shot.

·        Buck shot refers to a type of shotgun ammunition that contains multiple lead or sometimes other metal pellets (slugs) in each shell. These pellets are typically larger than birdshot.

·        Drop shot refers to lead pellets that are made entirely of pure lead without any additional coatings or hardening agents.

147. Match List - I with List – II

LIST – I		LIST – II
A.	Cast bullet	I.	Small brass cup which fits onto the base of plain lead bullets to reduce metal fouling in the bore
B.	Soft point bullet	II.	Jacketed bullet with lead core at the nose exposed
C.	Gas check bullet	III.	Plain lead bullet formed by pouring molten lead into a mould
D.	Drop bullet	IV.	The fall of a bullet during its flight due to gravity

 

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2.      A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

3.      A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

4.      A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

ANSWER – 2. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

·        A gas check is a small, usually brass, cup-like device that is attached to the base of a lead bullet. It serves to reduce lead fouling in the barrel by preventing the hot gases from the combustion of gunpowder from melting and depositing lead onto the barrel walls.

·        A soft point bullet is a type of ammunition where the lead core at the tip (nose) of the bullet is exposed, while the rest of the bullet is jacketed.

·        Cast bullets are made by melting lead (or sometimes other alloys) and pouring the molten metal into a mold where it solidifies into the desired bullet shape. These bullets typically do not have any additional jacketing or features like gas checks.

·        Drop bullet acknowledges the effect of gravity on the trajectory of a bullet as it travels through the air, causing it to drop over distance.

148. Match List - I with List – II

LIST – I		LIST – II
A.	The location where a gene is found on a chromosome	I.	Locus
B.	A gene that exists in more than one form	II.	Sequence polymorphism
C.	Different form of genes	III.	Alleles
D.	When there is a difference in one or more base pairs within a gene	IV.	Polymorphic

 

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2.      A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

3.      A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

4.      A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

ANSWER - 3. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

149. Match List - I with List – II

LIST – I EXPLOSIVE		LIST – II DISCOVERED BY/ PREPARED BY
A.	Mercury fulminate	I.	Wilbrand
B.	Nitroglycerin	II.	Woulff
C.	Trinitrotoluene	III.	Johann Kunckel von Lowenstern
D.	Picric acid	IV.	Ascanio Sobrero

 

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.      A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

2.      A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

3.      A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

4.      A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

150. Match List - I with List – II

LIST – I		LIST – II
A.	Abrasion	I.	Blunt force mechanical trauma causing collection of blood in tissues
B.	Graze	II.	Injury involving only superficial layers of skin
C.	Bruise	III.	A wound in which the skin or underlying tissues are torn as a result of application of blunt force
D.	Laceration	IV.	Injury which is produced when a broad surface of skin slipping or scarps against a rough surface

 

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1.       A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

2.      A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

3.      A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

4.      A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

ANSWER - 3. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III