FORENSIC ANTHROPOLOGY
Q1. Which of the following sutures of the skull is last to fuse?
a. Coronal
b. Basi-occiput with basi-sphenoid
c. Sagittal
d. Lamboid
ANSWER:
b. Basi-occiput with basi-sphenoid
EXPLANATION:
Basi-occiput and basi-sphenoid sutures:
• These sutures are located at the base of the skull where the occipital and sphenoid bones meet.
• They remain open until late adolescence or even early adulthood, around 25–30 years of age.
• These sutures are important for the proper alignment and development of the skull, and their fusion typically signals the end of significant skull growth.
Coronal suture: The coronal suture runs across the skull, connecting the frontal bone to the parietal bones. It typically begins to fuse around 30–40 years, but the basi-occiput and basi-sphenoid sutures fuse much later.
Sagittal suture: The sagittal suture, which runs along the top of the skull between the parietal bones, typically fuses around the age of 22–30 years. It is not the last suture to fuse.
Lambdoid suture: The lambdoid suture is located at the back of the skull, between the occipital and parietal bones. It generally fuses earlier than the basi-occiput and basi-sphenoid sutures, usually around 30–40 years.
Q2. Which process is involved in bone formation?
a. Tendonitis
b. Osteoporosis
c. Ossification
d. Epiphysis
ANSWER:
c. Ossification
EXPLANATION:
Ossification (also known as osteogenesis) is the process by which new bone tissue is formed. It is a critical part of bone development, growth, and healing. Ossification involves the conversion of cartilage or mesenchymal tissue into bone.
Q3. Which of the following can be determined by using pre-auricular sulcus?
a. Sex
b. Stature
c. Age
d. Race
ANSWER:
a. Sex
EXPLANATION:
The pre-auricular sulcus is a groove or indentation located near the auricular surface of the ilium (part of the pelvic bone), just in front of the sacroiliac joint. It is a distinctive anatomical feature that can help in determining biological sex in skeletal remains, though it is not present in all individuals and can vary in prominence.
In females, the pre-auricular sulcus is usually more pronounced and well-developed due to the wider pelvic structure needed for childbirth. Its presence is more common in females than in males.
In males, the pre-auricular sulcus is typically less defined or absent, as males generally have a less pronounced pelvic structure.
Q4. What is the shape of the sub-pubic angle in a female?
a. L shaped
b. U shaped
c. V shaped
d. Oval shaped
ANSWER:
b. U shaped
EXPLANATION:
The sub-pubic angle is U-shaped and tends to be wider and more rounded. This is in line with the female pelvis being adapted for childbirth, as a wider sub-pubic angle allows for the passage of a baby during labor.
The sub-pubic angle is typically V-shaped and narrower. This helps give the male pelvis a more compact structure.
Q5. The radiological study of skeletal remains for age estimation is based on the fusion of which of the following?
a. Anaphylaxis
b. Epiphysis
c. Metopic suture
d. Lamboid suture
ANSWER:
b. Epiphysis
EXPLANATION:
The epiphyses are the ends of long bones, which are initially separated from the shaft (diaphysis) by a layer of cartilage during childhood. Over time, these epiphyses gradually fuse to the diaphysis as a person matures.
This fusion process begins during childhood and continues into the early twenties, with some bones fusing later in life.
X-rays (radiographs) are used to observe the presence or absence of fusion and can give an estimate of age, especially when the individual is still in their growth period.
Q6. Stature of an individual is approximately ____ times of foot length of a person.
a. 5.9
b. 6.5
c. 7.5
d. 8.2
ANSWER:
b. 6.5
EXPLANATION:
It is based on the principle that there is a correlation between foot size and overall body size. Specifically, for most populations, the total height of a person can be estimated by multiplying the length of their foot by a constant factor.
For different populations, the multiplication factor may vary slightly, but on average:
Stature ≈ 6.5 × Foot Length
This multiplier (6.5x) is useful when only partial remains are available (e.g., in cases of accidents or decomposition where feet are found)
Q7. Linea Aspera is found on which of the following bone?
a. Femur
b. Humerus
c. Clavicle
d. Ulna
ANSWER:
a. Femur
EXPLANATION:
The Linea Aspera is a prominent ridge or line running along the posterior surface of the femur (thigh bone). It serves as an important attachment site for several muscles of the thigh, including the adductors and hamstrings. The line runs along the shaft of the femur and splits into two parts: the medial lip and the lateral lip, both of which give attachment to various muscles and ligaments.
Q8. Which of the following sets of cranial traits would most likely indicate African ancestry in forensic anthropological analysis?
a. Nasal spine absent, wide nasal aperture, post-bregmatic depression
b. Prominent nasal spine, narrow nasal aperture, retreating zygomatics
c. Carabelli’s cusp, intermediate nasal aperture, parabolic dental arch
d. Flat nasal bridge, projecting zygomatics, round orbits
ANSWER:
a. Nasal spine absent, wide nasal aperture, post-bregmatic depression
EXPLANATION:
In forensic anthropology, ancestry estimation relies on morphological traits that have been shown to vary statistically across populations. A wide nasal aperture, post-bregmatic depression, and minimal nasal spine are traits more frequently found in individuals of African descent.
This variation is influenced by evolutionary adaptation (e.g., climate affecting nasal morphology) and genetic drift.
Q9. Assertion A: The petrous portion of the temporal bone is often the best source for recovering DNA from skeletal remains
Reason R: The petrous bone is one of the densest bones in the body, offering protection to DNA even in decomposed cases.
a. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c. A is correct but R is not correct
d. A is not correct but R is correct
ANSWER:
a. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
EXPLANATION:
The petrous part of the temporal bone—located at the base of the skull—has been shown in both forensic and archaeological research to yield the highest quantity and quality of preserved DNA due to:
• Its high mineral density,
• Limited microbial invasion, and
• Protection from environmental degradation.
This makes it a preferred target in cases with skeletal remains that are old, burned, or highly decomposed.
Q10. Assertion A: Parallel striations with shallow, flat-bottomed grooves are indicative of rodent gnawing.
Reason R: Rodent activity on bone causes cortical thinning and internal remodeling.
a. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c. A is correct but R is not correct
d. A is not correct but R is correct
ANSWER:
c. A is correct but R is not correct
EXPLANATION:
Rodent gnawing is characterized by:
• Parallel, V- or U-shaped grooves, often in pairs due to incisors,
• Usually seen on bone margins or protrusions,
• Lack of any internal remodeling.
In contrast, antemortem bone pathology (e.g. osteomyelitis, chronic infection) leads to:
• Cortical thinning,
• Porosity,
• Internal remodeling, and
• Sometimes reactive bone growth
Content Writer:- Bhawana Sharma
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