Biological Sciences_Part-1_FACT 2018_Previous Year Question Paper

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Q.1 Human hair has medullary index

A.      Less than 0.3

B.      Between 0.3 and 1.0

C.      More than 1.0

D.     Between 1.5 and 2.5

ANSWER: A

 Q.2 Outer layer of hair shaft is called

A.      Cortex

B.      Cuticle

C.      Medulla

D.     Follicle

ANSWER: B

Q.3 Hardest tissue in human body is

A.      Dentin

B.      Enamel

C.      Cementum

D.     Bone

ANSWER: B

Q.4 Transitional phase in hair growth cycle is

A.      Anagen

B.      Catagen

C.      Telogen

D.     Phylogeny

ANSWER: B

Anagen Active growth phase; Early anagen: hair matrix forms new hair; Nourishment of Hair Folicle from blood supply enables hair growth. It lasts approx. 2–6 years.

Catagen Intermediate or “transition” phase; Deeper portion of the Hair Folicle starts to collapse, Hair Folicle detaches from nourishing blood supply. It lasts approx. 1–2 weeks

Telogen Resting phase; Remains of the hair bulk are inactive, papillary cells completely separate from Hair Folicle. It lasts approx.. 5–6 weeks

Exogen Shedding phase; Hairs at the end of their life fall out; Mainly coupled to early anagen but also occurs in telogen.

Phylogeny,:-History of the evolution of a species or group, especially in reference to lines of descent and relationships among broad groups of organisms.

Q.5 Scale pattern on hair helps to

A.      Differentiate male and female hairs

B.      Differentiate human and animal hairs

C.      Indicates site of hair

D.     Differentiate pubic hair from body hair

ANSWER: B

Q.6 Study of pollen grains is called as

A.      Palynology

B.      Dendrology

C.      Anthology

D.     Agrostology

ANSWER: A

Dendrology:- also called forest dendrology or xylology, study of the characteristics of trees, shrubs, lianas, and other woody plants.

Anthology:- collection of selected literary pieces or passages or works of art or music.

Agrostology:- also called graminology. study of the grasses. Family Poaceae, or Gramineae.

Q. 7 Microscopic examination of cotton fibers reveal

A.      Spirally twisted ribbon like feature

B.      A smooth, cylindrical, hollow, thin walled fibers

C.      Net like thickenings

D.     Distinct length wise striations

ANSWER: A

Q. 8 On the basis of diatoms which is the best suited for diagnosis of ante-mortem drowning

A.      Vitreous humor

B.      Lung content

C.      Stomach content

D.     Femur

ANSWER:D

• Bone marrow is considered to be the best as it proves the hypothesis of ante-mortem drowning as well as it is least affected by contamination during post-mortem submersion.
• Diatoms can resist putrefaction, so diatom test is more valuable in the cases where decomposition is advanced and post mortem symptoms of drowning had got diminished.

Q.9 Wild life protection Act in India came into force in year

A.      1962

B.      1972

C.      1975

D.     1977

ANSWER: B

Wildlife Protection Act

It provides for authorities to administer and implement the Act; regulate the hunting of wild animals; protect specified plants, sanctuaries, national parks and closed areas; restrict trade or commerce in wild animals or animal articles; and miscellaneous matters.

Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

It authorizes the central government to protect and improve environmental quality, control and reduce pollution from all sources, and prohibit or restrict the setting and /or operation of any industrial facility on environmental grounds.

Q.10 Wildlife Institute of India is situated at

A.      Nanital

B.      Dehradun

C.      Delhi

D.     Hyderabad

ANSWER: B

Wildlife Institute of India was established in 1982.

Q.11 The best method of identification from pulled hairs is

A.      Blood grouping

B.      Microscopic examination

C.      DNA profiling

D.     Enzyme analysis

ANSWER: C

Q.12 In relation to Mitochondrial DNA which is NOT correct

A.      Present in cytoplasm

B.      Length of DNA is 16569 nucleotide

C.      Encodes 37 genes

D.     Transmitted paternally to off-springs

ANSWER: D

Mitochondrial genome contains 37 genes that encode 13 proteins, 22 tRNAs, and 2 rRNAs. The 13 mitochondrial gene-encoded proteins all instruct cells to produce protein subunits of the enzyme complexes of the oxidative phosphorylation system, which enables mitochondria to act as the powerhouses of our cells.

Nuclear DNA	Mitochondrial DNA
Made of 3.3 billion DNA base pairs.	Made of 16,569 DNA base pairs
One cell contain only one copy of its nuclear genome.	One mitochondrion contains dozens of copies of its mitochondrial genome & one cell have numerous mitochondria. (several thousand copies of its mitochondrial genome)
approx. 93% of the nuclear genome is noncoding DNA	approx. 3% of the mitochondrial genome is noncoding DNA,

 Q.13 PCR technique was invented by

A.      Karry Mullis

B.      Alec Jeffry

C.      Watson and Crick

D.     Bruce Budowle

ANSWER: A

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

• It is a laboratory technique used to amplify DNA sequences.
• The method involves using short DNA sequences called primers to select the portion of the genome to be amplified.
• The temperature of the sample is repeatedly raised and lowered to help a DNA replication enzyme copy the target DNA sequence.
• The technique can produce a billion copies of the target sequence in just a few hours.

Q.14 Deoxyribose lacks an oxygen atom at

A.      C-1 position of ribose

B.      C-2 position of ribose

C.      C-3 position of ribose

D.     C-4 position of ribose

ANSWER: B

  Q.15 CODIS comprises of

A.      13 STRs

B.      14 STRs

C.      20 STRs

D.     17 STRs

ANSWER: A

National DNA Index System (NDIS)

A system of DNA profile records input by criminal justice agencies (including state and local law enforcement agencies).

Combined DNA Index System (CODIS)

It is the automated DNA information processing and telecommunication system that supports NDIS.

 Q.16 Small solid supports onto which are spotted hundreds of thousands of tiny drops of DNA that can be used to screen gene expression is called

A.      DNA microarray

B.      Cloning library

C.      Chip-seq

D.     Southern blot

ANSWER: A

DNA microarray is a tool used to determine whether the DNA from a particular individual contains a mutation in genes like BRCA1 and BRCA2. The chip consists of a small glass plate encased in plastic.

Cloning library Result of any cloning experiment that begins with total DNA from a specific source is a library of clones. Thus cloning mRNA through a cDNA intermediate generates a cDNA library that represents the mRNA from that specific developmental stage.

ChIP-seq	RNA-seq
·         Method used to analyze protein interactions with DNA. ·         ChIP-seq combines chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP) with massively parallel DNA sequencing to identify the binding sites of DNA-associated proteins.	·         Technique that can examine the quantity and sequences of RNA in a sample using next-generation sequencing (NGS). ·         It analyzes the transcriptome, indicating which of the genes encoded in our DNA are turned on or off and to what extent.

 

Northern blotting	Southern blotting
·         performed to detect RNA sequences ·         formaldehyde or polyacrylamide gels are commonly used ·         not necessary for RNA	·         to detect DNA sequences. ·         agarose gel are typically used for electrophoresis ·         requires DNA to be digested with restriction enzymes before running the gel

 Q.17 Which is NOT the violent mode of death

A.      Natural

B.      Accident

C.      Suicide

D.     Homicide

ANSWER: A

 Q.18 "Washerwomen” appearance in hand and sole in typically seen in cases of

A.      Poisoning by washing soda

B.      Aeroplane crash

C.      Drowning

D.     Falling in a dry well

ANSWER: C

Q.19 Rule of 9 is used to measure the area involved in cases of

A.      Traffic accidents

B.      Electrical injury

C.      Railway accidents

D.     Burn injury

ANSWER: D

Q.20 Bone building cells are

A.      Osteoblasts

B.      Osteoclasts

C.      OsteocytesD.     Chondrocytes

ANSWER: A

Osteoclasts	Responsible for aged bone resorption (process by which something is reabsorbed.) Cells that degrade bone to initiate normal bone remodeling and mediate bone loss in pathologic conditions by increasing their resorptive activity. They are derived from precursors in the myeloid/ monocyte lineage that circulate in the blood after their formation in the bone marrow.
Osteoblasts	Specialized mesenchymal cells that synthesize bone matrix and coordinate the mineralization of the skeleton
Osteocytes	Longest living bone cell, making up 90–95% of cells in bone tissue in contrast to osteoclasts and osteoblasts making up ~5%. Osteocytes form when osteoblasts become buried in the mineral matrix of bone and develop distinct features.
Chondrocytes	Cells responsible for cartilage formation, and they are crucial for the process of endochondral ossification, which is useful for bone development.

 Q .21 Carbohydrates are detected using

A.      Molisch’s test

B.      Ninhydrin test

C.      Takayama test

D.     Benzidine test

ANSWER: A

 Q.22 Ligature Mark of hanging is an example of

A.      Scratch abrasion

B.      Pressure abrasion

C.      Bruise

D.     Laceration

ANSWER: B

Q.23 The layer of actively dividing cells of skin is

A.      Stratum granulosum

B.      Stratum corneum

C.      Stratum lucidium

D.     Stratum germinativum

ANSWER: D

Q.24 Hardy-Weinberg law refers to the study of

A.      Mutation

B.      Genetic drift

C.      Population equilibirium

D.     Allele frequency

ANSWER: C

Q.25 Pleiotropic gene has

A.      Multiple genotype

B.      Single genotype

C.      Single phenotype

D.     Multiple phenotype

ANSWER: D

Pleiotropic gene

• A single gene that control more than one traits.
• Example:- Marfan syndrome, a human genetic disorder affecting the connective tissues. It is caused by a mutation in a human gene resulting in pleiotropy. This disease commonly affects the eyes, heart, blood vessels, and skeleton.

Q.26 Down’s syndrome is a typical example of

A.      Nullisomy

B.      Monosomy

C.      Trisomy

D.     Gene Mutation

ANSWER: C

Nullisomy	a genetic condition involving the lack of both the normal chromosomal pairs for a species (2n-2)
Monosomy	absence of one member of a pair of chromosomes.
Trisomy	a chromosomal condition characterized by an additional chromosome. Down syndrome, Edward syndrome and Patau syndrome are the most common forms of trisomy.

• Klinefelter’s syndrome----XXY (47chromosomes), Anatomically male
• Turner’s syndrome----XO (45 chromosomes), Anatomically female, no Barr bodies or drumsticks in the neutrophils
• Down syndrome---genetic disorder caused when abnormal cell division results in an extra full or partial copy of chromosome 21.

  Q.27 Probability of events must lie in limits of

A.     1 to 2

B.      3 to 5

C.      8 to 10

D.     0 to 1

ANSWER: D

 Q.28 Most important bone for sex determination is

A.      Pelvis

B.      Humerus

C.      Scapula

D.     Tibia

ANSWER: A

 Q.29 Acetabulum is part of

A.      Mandible

B.      Humerus

C.      Pelvis

D.     Tibia

ANSWER: C

 Q.30 Hemoglobin variants can be easily determined by

A.      Electrophoresis

B.      Color test

C.      Colorimetry

D.     GLC

ANSWER: A

 Q.31 Which indicates the presence of saliva

A.      Urobilinogen

B.      Amylase

C.      Dermicidin

D.     Amines

ANSWER: B

Urobilinogen	Urine/ Fecal matter
Amylase	saliva
Dermicidin	Sweat
Amines	Excretory substances

 Q.32 The approximate percentage of secretors in human population is

A.      20%

B.      80%

C.      40%

D.     95%

ANSWER: B

 Q.33 Which prevents blood clotting

A.      Heparin

B.      Fibrinogen

C.      Albumin

D.     Globulin

ANSWER: A

Albumin

• A protein made by your liver.  
• Present in both animal and plant physiological fluids and tissues.
• It plays many important roles including maintenance of appropriate osmotic pressure, binding and transport of various substances like hormones, drugs etc. in blood, and neutralization of free radicals.
• Normal range is 3.4 to 5.4 g/dL (34 to 54 g/L

Globulins)

• Group of proteins in your blood.
• They are made in your liver by your immune system.
• Play an important role in liver function, blood clotting, and fighting infection.
• There are four main types of globulins (alpha 1, alpha 2, beta, and gamma).
• Normal range of globulin is around 2.0-3.9 g/dL or 20-39 g/L.

 Q.34 Semen can be detected using

A.      Guacum test

B.      Reine’s test

C.      Berberio’s test

D.     Kastle-Mayer test

ANSWER: C

Guacum test

• A phenolic compound derived from the resin of Guaiacum trees is used in a common test for blood in human stool samples.
• The presence of heme in the blood causes the formation of a coloured product in the presence of hydrogen peroxide.

Rinne test

• It differentiates sound transmission via air conduction from sound transmission via bone conduction.
• It can serve as a quick screen for conductive hearing loss.
• A Rinne test should be done in conjunction with a Weber test to detect sensorineural hearing loss.

Weber test

• A screening test for hearing performed with a tuning fork.
• It can detect unilateral (one-sided) conductive hearing loss (middle ear hearing loss) and unilateral sensorineural hearing loss (inner ear hearing loss).

Q.35 Condyle means

A.      Sharp distinct ridge

B.      A smooth rounded projection

C.      A horn like process

D.     Small articular surface
ANSWER: B

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